A project is a time-bound effort constrained by performance specifications, resources, and also budacquire to develop a distinctive product or organization.

You are watching: Which of the following statements correctly describes project management?

a. True

b. False


Operations consist of the continuous work-related required to ensure that an company proceeds to attribute efficiently.

a. True

b. False


A task manager requirements to be pertained to via achieving wanted scope and high quality (regularly dubbed performance), subject to constraints of time and also expense.

a. True

b. False


Many kind of different job life cycle models are used for various kinds of projects, such as information devices, improvement, research and advancement, and building and construction.

a. True

b. False


Generally,the pace of job-related and amount of money invested remains consistent from one life cycle stage to an additional.

a. True

b. False


The name and also variety of phases in a task life cycle are determined by the organization(s) affiliated in the project.

a. True

b. False


Communications Management, one of the ten PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas, requires the processes to determine the human being, teams, or establishments, that can impact or be affected by the task, analyze their expectations and affect, and also develop tactics for engaging them in job decisions and also execution.

a. True

b. False


The just instrumental steps of job success are completing the project on schedule and on budget.

a. True

b. False


In agile tasks, the customer representative role is passive, and also their involvement is typically restricted to the beforehand stages of the job.

a. True

b. False


The Project Management Office (PMO) is comprised of the peak leader in the organization (CEO or other officer) and also his or her straight reports.

a. True

b. False


Which of the complying with examples is NOT a typical or correct instance to employ project management?

a. installing a brand-new accounting application on a server

b. boosting a soldering procedure in an assembly line

c. emerging a brand-new clinical gadget for use by clinics

d. handling deposits and withdrawals in a bank


In an adaptive or readjust - pushed project life cycle:

a. early results lead right into planning later job-related.

b. the product is well taken.

c. all planning precedes all executing.

d. the waterloss technique is commonly provided.


Which of the following statements properly defines project management?

a. Project administration just counts upon checklists to setup and also execute the job-related.

b. Project management provides expertise, abilities, devices and also approaches to meet stakeholder needs and also expectations

c. Project management"s goal is to preserve effectiveness of continuous operations.

d. Project administration have to not involve profession offs between scope, schedule and also cost.


b. Project management provides knowledge, abilities, tools and also methods to satisfy stakeholder requirements and expectations


Which of the following statements concerning project life cycles is most accurate?

a. The project life cycle is the very same for the varied forms of tasks regulated by an organization.

b. All study and also development projects use the same four-stage project life cycle version.

c. Project life cycles are incredibly comparable regardmuch less of the market.

d. Many kind of various task life cycle models are supplied for different forms of projects.


Which of the ten expertise areas identified in the Project Management Body of Knowledge consists of the procedures forced to encertain that the project contains all the work required, and also just the work-related compelled, to finish the project successfully?

a. Communications management

b. Scope management

c. Stakeholder management

d. Quality management


Achieving task success is identified by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. completing the job on schedule and on budget

b. giving outputs that please the project"s customers

c. entailing just crucial crucial stakeholders

d. producing deliverables that incorporate all forced features


Projects are considered effective for every one of the factors below EXCEPT:

a. organizational discovering takes location and also is recorded for future projects

b. members of the team learn new skills and/or refine existing skills

c. the perdeveloping company reaps business-level benefits.

d. the team has actually offered heroics to meet task objectives


Project faiattract have the right to result from all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a. poor planning

b. adequate support from executive management

c. incomplete or unclear requirements

d. unrealistic time demands


A project manager in agile jobs that serves and also leads in a collaborative, facilitating manner is called a:

a. routine manager

b. scrum master

c. sponsor

d. functional manager


From an agile job management perspective, which of these constraints are considered to be fixed?

a. Customer satisfaction

b. Resources and also schedule

c. Quality and value

d. Scope and also time


The task charter serves as a formal legal contract between the task team and also the job sponsor.

a. True

b. False


In contrast to a legal contract, the parties to a signed job charter feel obligated to the soul (as opposed to the letter) of the charter because the project details have not yet been operated out and the specifics will certainly change.

a. True

b. False


A task charter deserve to vary in its size from one-web page to multiple pperiods, depending upon the size and also complexity of the project.

a. True

b. False


A well-composed company situation have to guide decision-equipments to assistance the job and inspire the project team members and essential stakeholders to job-related tough in the direction of effective completion of the job.

a. True

b. False


The task business situation gives a high-level description of what the job will achieve and also exactly how it will certainly be done.

a. True

b. False


The project grasp netjob-related is a high-level arrangement that suggests a few considerable achievements that are anticipated over the life of the project.

a. True

b. False


A vital idea in agile projects is that something of worth will certainly be yielded at each iteration.

a. True

b. False


Risks, assumptions and constraints are had in the task charter so that essential participants will be conscious of what could proccasion them from efficiently completing the project.

a. True

b. False


Throughout task charter development tbelow is commonly a really basic expertise of the job, so any kind of budacquire consisted of is approximate and have to be called a preliminary budgain via a equivalent confidence level for this estimate.

a. True

b. False


The project charter grants the task team the ideal to:

a. compose a in-depth business case

b. produce a thorough job plan

c. build the task mission statement

d. begin job execution


The job charter serves every one of the adhering to purposes EXCEPT:

a. quickly screens out obviously bad projects

b. authorizes the task manager to proceed

c. describes skill sets needed for the project

d. helps build a prevalent understanding in between the task manager, sponsor and assigned team members


Throughout iteration planning in an agile task, agreement is reached regarding:

a. the size of the following sprint.

b. positive and also negative threats.

c. the interpretation of done.

d. detailed stakeholder demands.


Which of the complying with charter elements defines the job purpose and also justifies the need of the project?

a. scope regulate plan

b. company case

c. scope overview

d. acceptance criteria


The milerock schedule in the project charter:

a. is a summary-level schedule that shows just how significant task work are sequenced.

b. is a high-level plan that indicates a few substantial achievements anticipated over the life of the job.

c. is a schedule that offers comprehensive information for once each job task have to begin.

d. is a in-depth schedule that mirrors the planned duration for every activity in the job.


b. is a high-level setup that indicates a few substantial achievements anticipated over the life of the task.


Project charters generally incorporate all of the following elements EXCEPT:

a. job constraints

b. in-depth resource requirements

c. negative and positive risks

d. job assumptions


Team operating values are sometimes included in a task charter to improve team performance. Which of the adhering to statements accurately defines the worth of establishing team operating principles?

a. Operating values determine the rules along with the punishments to be administered as soon as the rules are broken.

b. Operating principles define the particular job-related each team member will certainly perdevelop.

c. Operating principles rise team effectiveness and also encertain that all parties are conscious of what is expected.

d. Operating principles are especially advantageous for a routine task wright here participants have worked together before.


c. Operating values increase team efficiency and encertain that all parties are conscious of what is intended.


38.

A project sponsor is wise not to sign a task charter authorizing occupational till the job manager and also team show that they have actually ____:

a. reperceived lessons learned from freshly completed tasks in order to stop equivalent mistakes.

b. all set an extensive schedule and budgain.

c. gathered needs from key stakeholders.

d. learned to job-related together well.


a. reregarded lessons learned from recently completed projects in order to prevent similar mistakes.


39.

Which of the complying with statements accurately explains the responsibilities commonly associated through the advancement of the project charter?

a. the job sponsor commonly prepares the thorough first draft of the charter.

b. the customer typically prepares and also signs the charter.

c. more frequently than not, the task manager writes the draft project charter.

d. the job manager commonly prepares the company instance and also scope overwatch.


c. even more often than not, the task manager writes the draft job charter.


40.

On agile tasks the initially iteration is planned as a milestone with acceptance criteria. However, succeeding turning points and acceptance criteria are determined on a ___:

a. need-to-understand basis

b. simply in time (JIT) basis

c. initially come first served basis

d. initially in initially out (FIFO) basis


b. just in time (JIT) basis


41.

In a projectized organization the useful manager has finish, or extremely cshed to finish, power over the project team.

a. True

b. False


b. False


42.

In a useful organization employees have the right to learn easily from others in their discipline and also save their abilities sharp.

a. True

b. False


a. True


43.

In a projectized company the job manager has actually considerable authority for budgets, personnel and also other decision-making issues.

a. True

b. False


a. True


44.

A form of matrix organization in which the useful manager and also task manager have equal amounts of power is dubbed a weak matrix.

a. True

b. False


b. False


45.

Organizational culture is composed of values, social rituals, signs, job-related values, organizational behavior, ideas, and practices that are common among members of the organization and also are taught to new members.

a. True

b. False


a. True


46.

If the project scope is hard to specify early on in the job and/or much adjust is intended, an Agile task management method frequently works much better.

a. True

b. False


a. True


47.

In "personal cultures" people display screen an attitude that cooperation is satisfying and stimulating.

a. True

b. False


a. True


48.

When the task sponsor and manager are determining how to create the project society, ethics should be a critical consideration.

a. True

b. False


a. True


49.

A job manager demonstrates integrity in ways that include making hoswarm decisions, protecting human being, defending core worths, leading significant adjust, reflecting respect, developing a society of honesty, and displaying complete commitment to job and also civilization.

a. True

b. False


a. True


50.

Team members on agile projects need solid direction from the sponsor and also job manager.

a. True

b. False


b. False


51.

Which of the adhering to is an benefit linked with regulating projects in a sensible organization?

a. Combines task emphasis via technical capability.

b. Traditional department barriers are decreased.

c. Unity of command - all employees understand also plainly what they have to carry out because just one "boss" is offering them instructions.

d. Rapid interaction in between the various attributes functioning on the job.


c. Unity of command also - all employees understand also clearly what they should do because just one "boss" is offering them instructions.


52.

All of the adhering to are benefits connected through managing tasks in a projectized organization EXCEPT:

a. One boss - the job manager

b. Departmental barriers are reduced.

c. Workers understand they will certainly still have a job as soon as they complete work-related on a task.

d. Response times and also decision making are swift.


c. Workers recognize they will still have actually a task once they end up work on a project.


53.

Which of the adhering to organizational frameworks runs contrary to the unity of command also principle - that each employee works for a single supervisor?

a. useful organization

b. siloed organization

c. projectized organization

d. matrix organization


d. matrix organization


54.

When trying to understand a corporate culture, it is beneficial to understand also the types of power that are used. In "power cultures":

a. employees very closely follow their appointed functions.

b. even more deference is passist to expertise than to formal authority.

c. display an attitude that cooperation is satisfying and also stimulating.

d. supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power.


d. supervisors exert a great deal of financial and political power.


55.

Some business society characteristics make task success even more most likely. These attributes encompass every one of the adhering to EXCEPT:

a. engagement of stakeholders

b. lack of appreciation for project management

c. cooperation throughout cultures

d. cooperation to accomplish organizational goals


b. absence of appreciation for job management


56.

The job life cycle wright here job teams plan in brief bursts (mostly of one to 4 weeks), regularly dubbed sprints or iterations, is described as _________:

a. Adaptive, change-pushed task life cycle

b. Process development life cycle

c. Construction project life cycle

d. Predictive, plan-moved project life cycle


a. Adaptive, change-thrust task life cycle


57.

In agile jobs, the individual that leads in a collaborative manner by guiding groups and removing obstacles to their progress is called the:

a. facilitator

b. sponsor

c. scrum master

d. project manager


c. scrum master


58.

Which of the adhering to executive functions is responsible for all at once priority establishing, project selection and also prioritization, general guidance and also encouragement?

a. Sponsor

b. Project Management Office

c. Steering Team

d. Chief Projects Officer


c. Steering Team


59.

In agile tasks, overall planning is at a high level, and also just the near-term work-related is planned in detail. The job occupational is performed in iterations (sprints) that are normally:

a. no more than one calendar year

b. a variable size relying on job scope

c. a addressed size of 2 or four weeks

d. assigned to one perchild on the team


c. a fixed size of two or four weeks


60.

Which of the following functions and also features do NOT explain the core team members on a project?

a. Core team members frequently make project decisions jointly with the project manager.

b. Core team members sign up with the project on a momentary basis to perform particular task tasks as crucial.

c. Core team members may supervise the job-related of subject matter professionals who are brought in on an as-essential basis.

d. Core team members are the small team of civilization who are generally on the task from begin to end up.


b. Core team members join the task on a short-lived basis to perdevelop specific job tasks as necessary.


61.

The ideal time to on-board core team members is once the project charter is being created.

a. True

b. False


a. True


62.

All task groups progress uniformly with five steras of team advancement.

a. True

b. False


b. False


63.

Synergy results in a team having a cumulative capability that exceeds the amount of individual capabilities.

a. True

b. False


a. True


64.

The "relationship" topics within team ground rules, such as "talk about openly and defend confidentiality" and also "stop misunderstandings", must eliminate the require for the team to deal with how to take care of conflict.

a. True

b. False


b. False


65.

A task manager understands the prominence of understanding individual motives, and also takes the moment to ask each team member what he or she personally desires from being associated in the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


66.

A job manager"s referent power is defined as persuading others based upon offering them somepoint.

a. True

b. False


b. False


67.

The adoption of specific ground rules that specify acceptable actions by project team members have the right to enhance working relationships, efficiency, and interaction.

a. True

b. False


a. True


68.

When a task team member is not perdeveloping, rewards may not prove as effective as a coercive technique that threatens the team member with undesired aftermath.

a. True

b. False


a. True


69.

Conflict over concepts on exactly how to proceed through a task can result in even more artistic philosophies.

a. True

b. False


a. True


70.

The negotiation process requires several measures such as: preparing for negotiation; discovering your walk-amethod point; and also working in the direction of a widespread goal.

a. True

b. False


a. True


71.

It is argued that job groups progression with 5 steras of team development. Which of the adhering to sequences best represents this progression?

a. creating, perdeveloping, redeveloping, norming, adjourning

b. developing, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

c. forming, norming, storming, performing, reforming

d. developing, storming, norming, percreating, reforming


b. developing, storming, norming, perdeveloping, adjourning


72.

uring which phase of team advance carry out team members attempt to jocvital for power, ask many kind of inquiries and create dubious goals?

a. norming

b. forming

c. storming

d. performing


c. storming


73.

Agile groups need motivated members via a higher level of commitment, and agile groups have actually all of the adhering to desirable traits EXCEPT:

a. Fail their means to success

b. Argue around everything

c. Deliver value

d. Inquiry everything


b. Argue about everything


74.

Which two project team success components have actually presented the strongest correlation to successful project performance as regarded by senior managers?

a. Clear task plans developed by the team, and effective communications

b. Mutual trust, respect, and also credibility and cross-sensible cooperation

c. Stimulating work environment and also opportunity for team and also individual recognition

d. Clearly on identified task and team objectives, and use of job and relationship actions to resolve conflicts


c. Stimulating job-related setting and also chance for team and individual recognition


75.

All of the following are among the techniques job managers deserve to use to develop individual and team capabilities EXCEPT:

a. use coercive powers

b. teach individual responsibility

c. demand situational leadership

d. demonstrate personal leadership


a. utilize coercive powers


76.

All of the following represent widespread methods for making decisions on contemporary task groups EXCEPT:

a. The project manager or sponsor renders the decision.

b. The steering team reviews the job information and also provides the decision.

c. The project team votes to make the decision.

d. One or 2 team members recommfinish or make the decision.


b. The steering team reviews the project information and makes the decision.


77.

Frequently, project supervisors absence legitimate power based upon place and also instead retype to persuading others based upon personal relationships. This kind of power is well-known as:

a. referent power

b. connection power

c. coercive power

d. positional power


a. referent power


78.

Which of the following styles of dealing with dispute is a lot of appropriate whenever before tright here is sufficient time, trust deserve to be establiburned, the problem is essential to both sides and buy-in is needed?

a. compromising

b. smoopoint / accommodating

c. forcing / competing

d. collaborating / problem solving


d. collaborating / trouble solving


79.

Which of these is NOT among the prevalent task-connected resources of task conflict?

a. priorities

b. personalities

c. technological approach

d. schedule


b. personalities


80.

All of the adhering to are among the steps of the negotiation procedure EXCEPT:

a. clarify and confirm agreements

b. job-related toward a prevalent goal

c. clarify both parties" interests

d. usage "excellent cop / bad cop" technique


d. usage "excellent cop / negative cop" technique


81.

A project manager need to usage reliable communications to collection and also control expectations of all stakeholders and also to encertain that job job-related is completed properly and on time.

a. True

b. False


a. True


82.

Stakeholders incorporate people who have their routines disrupted by the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


83.

A stakeholder is anyone that will certainly use, will certainly be impacted by or might influence the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


84.

Project managers must purposetotally plan and lug out relationship-structure tasks via stakeholders that cause respect and also trust.

a. True

b. False


a. True


85.

The communications management setup is finalized throughout task planning, and have to only be adjusted through a formal change regulate process.

a. True

b. False


b. False


86.

Usual purposes for project interactions incorporate standing reporting and also efforts to obtain approval of job outputs.

a. True

b. False


a. True


87.

Conshort-term job communications commonly include both press methods such as blogs, and also pull methods such as e-mail.

a. True

b. False


b. False


88.

The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) procedure development version deserve to be applied especially to improving job meetings.

a. True

b. False


a. True


89.

An worry log is a document that identifies the particular problems that need to be resolved before a specific job monitoring meeting adjourns.

a. True

b. False


b. False


90.

During the Manage Communications procedure, job supervisors must continuously monitor relationships, communications, and lessons learned in order to regulate stakeholder expectations.

a. True

b. False


b. False


91.

________ is the process of the project team interacting and functioning with stakeholders to satisfy their demands (and extra desires, when possible), handle worries quickly and also encourage energetic stakeholder participation throughout.

a. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

b. Analyze Stakeholders

c. Identify Stakeholders

d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement


d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement


92.

Stakeholders include every one of the adhering to civilization EXCEPT:

a. those that occupational on the project

b. those whose routines might be disrupted by the project

c. those that carry out human being or sources for the project

d. those that will certainly not be influenced by the project


d. those that will not be impacted by the project


93.

Which of these is NOT among the 3 methods of interaction that will be documented in a interaction plan?

a. Interactive methods

b. Push methods

c. Pull methods

d. Virtual methods


d. Virtual methods


94.

Project stakeholders can be prioritized based upon their level of power, legitimacy and also urgency plus a variety of extra criteria that might include:

a. fame

b. tenure

c. personality

d. impact


d. impact


95.

The stakeholder register information have the right to be offered to evaluate the interests of various stakeholder teams by percreating a _______ analysis to recognize wbelow tright here may be prevalent areas of interemainder between the groups.

a. MBWA (management-by-wandering-around)

b. PDCA (plan-do-check-act)

c. ITSFWI (if-the-shoe-fits-wear-it)

d. WIIFT (what"s-in-it-for-them)


d. WIIFT (what"s-in-it-for-them)


96.

In the Plus-Deltan approach of evaluating job meetings, the "delta" column is offered for team members to market their opinion about one element of the meeting that ________.

a. Was poor and also might be avoided (changed) in future meetings

b. Was good and must be repeated

c. Was an worry raised in the meeting have to be adhered to up prior to the following meeting

d. Involves the habits of one of the team members


a. Was poor and might be avoided (changed) in future meetings


97.

A principal principle in agile is that the length of daily stand-up meetings need to be ___________.

a. 10 minutes or less

b. 15 minutes or less

c. 45 minutes or less

d. 30 minutes or less


b. 15 minutes or less


98.

In order to plan for a project meeting, job managers should construct an agenda. Which of the statements listed below is NOT exact through respect to a project meeting agenda?

a. the agenda have to only be mutual through senior administration.

b. the agenda need to list the significant topics of the meeting in the order in which they will certainly be covered.

c. the job manager should assure the agenda is prepared and also spread ahead of time.

d. the agenda should state the objective of the meeting.


a. the agenda should just be mutual with senior monitoring.


99.

A instance that calls for a decision to be made, yet one that the team that cannot make now, usually due to needing even more information or time, is referred to as a(n) _____:

a. assumption

b. constraint

c. risk

d. issue


d. issue


100.

Once the job is undermeans, the task manager and also team should control communications by doing all of the adhering to activities EXCEPT:

a. Communicate properly, taking actions to encertain the receiver understands the interaction and also acts appropriately.

b. Communicate thoaround, copying all stakeholders on all e-mails and team condition reports.

c. Communicate promptly, giving indevelopment soon enough so that it is helpful to recipients and facilitates timely decisions.

d. Communicate accurately, presenting indevelopment in a manner that world are likely to translate correctly.


b. Communicate thoroughly, copying all stakeholders on all e-mails and also team status reports.


101.

The project scope is the work-related that have to be percreated to deliver a product, service or outcome via the required functions and functions.

a. True

b. False


a. True


102.

The priority of the product in agile is more considerable than in traditional project management, as the outcome, or product, will certainly drive the elaboration of the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


103.

The job scope statement creates the project boundaries by stating what functions and also occupational elements are contained (in scope) and also which are excluded (out of scope).

a. True

b. False


a. True


104.

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is typically arisen by listing deliverables - significant deliverables initially and then significantly smaller ones until the team feels that eincredibly deliverable has actually been figured out.

a. True

b. False


a. True


105.

A Work Breakdvery own Structure should be decreated at leastern 4 levels in order to be reliable.

a. True

b. False


b. False


106.

A WBS dictionary is a file that defines each of the terms provided in the task scope statement.

a. True

b. False


b. False


107.

When a job team requirements to construct a WBS, it needs to include in its planning team a topic matter professional (SME) that understands exactly how each segment of the work-related will certainly be achieved.

a. True

b. False


a. True


108.

A "top-down" strategy to developing a WBS is generally supplied as soon as a job is unique and different from previous tasks.

a. True

b. False


b. False


109.

It is essential to asauthorize a unique name and also a distinctive number to every component in the task Work Breakdvery own Structure.

a. True

b. False


a. True


110.

Once the arrangement baseline has been apshowed and also the task is undermethod, job groups attend to adjust by developing and also using a readjust regulate mechanism to receive and testimonial change proposals and also accept or disapprove them after evaluating their affect on task scope, cost and schedule.

a. True

b. False


a. True


111.

All of the following aspects must be consisted of in a project scope statement EXCEPT:

a. last and also intermediate deliverables through acceptance criteria

b. task boundaries or exclusions

c. constraints applied on the task, and presumptions made in the time of planning

d. names of the job team members


d. names of the project team members


112.

On agile jobs, the scope meaning starts through :

a. occupational packages

b. huge chunks of occupational, or features

c. stories and personas

d. requirements


b. huge chunks of work, or features


113.

It is useful to list demands and also sustaining indevelopment in a demands traceability matrix. When needs are complete, they must meet all of these criteria EXCEPT:

a. Identified via the stakeholder(s) who demands it

b. Prioritized according to worth, price, time, hazard, or mandate so trade-off decisions can be made if needed

c. Qualified by measurable conditions

d. Assigned to a team member who will be the necessity owner


d. Assigned to a team member that will certainly be the necessity owner


114.

The approach of dividing the project scope right into many kind of components that, as soon as unified, would certainly constitute the task deliverable is dubbed _____:

a. decomposition

b. demands traceability

c. rolling wave planning

d. collect requirements


a. decomposition


115.

A _______ is the apshowed task plan greatly consisting of scope, schedule, and also price that is not usually transformed unless a formal change regulate repursuit is apconfirmed for modifying these plans.

a. component.

b. baseline.

c. need.

d. benchmark.


b. baseline.


116.

Which of the complying with is NOT a format that is commonly offered to recurrent a Work Breakdvery own Structure?

a. Hierarchical or "org chart"

b. Requirements Tracecapacity Matrix

c. Free format

d. Indented outline


b. Requirements Tracecapability Matrix


117.

The all at once task is thought about to be the initially level of the WBS. All of the adhering to approaches have the right to be used to organize the second level of the WBS EXCEPT:

a. Organized by job phase.

b. Organized by job-related feature./ subproject

c. Organized by architecture components / deliverables.

d. Organized by activities and also tasks


d. Organized by tasks and tasks


118.

This approach is an iterative procedure that identifies and also defines the job-related to be totally accomplished in the close to term, and also plans the future occupational at a greater level.

a. Traceability

b. Rolling wave planning.

c. Decomplace.

d. Agile


b. Rolling wave planning.


119.

The work-related component at the lowest level of the WBS for which price and duration deserve to be approximated and controlled is referred to as the ______:

a. activity

b. control account

c. occupational package

d. work-related element


c. work package


120.

A _________ is a composed request or formal proposal to propose changes to any job planning component such as a document, job deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and time).

a. adjust request

b. scope statement

c. request for proposal (RFP)

d. project charter


a. readjust request


121.

The first procedure in occurring a job schedule is to recognize all the resources available to work on the project.

a. True

b. False


b. False


122.

While the lowest level of decomplace in a WBS is the occupational package, job-related packages have the right to still be decomposed additionally right into job-related activities.

a. True

b. False


a. True


123.

A follower activity is the schedule activity that adheres to a predecessor activity, as figured out by their logical partnership.

a. True

b. False


a. True


124.

The a lot of widespread kind of logical dependency to recognize the sequence of project tasks is "finish-to-finish" (FF).

a. True

b. False


b. False


125.

A mandatory dependency is a logical relationship in between tasks that should take place - generally as a result of a physical or legal demand.

a. True

b. False


a. True


126.

If the task manager transforms an activity on the critical path to begin at a later day, then the whole project will end at a later on day.

a. True

b. False


a. True


127.

To usage the enumeration strategy of determining the instrumental course, we list or enumerate every one of the paths via the netjob-related.

a. True

b. False


a. True


128.

When developing a project schedule, total float describes the amount of time a schedule activity might be delayed from its beforehand start day without delaying the task finish date.

a. True

b. False


a. True


129.

A Gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart that mirrors each work activity on a sepaprice line through the bar inserted from the early start day to the early finish day for each activity on a timescale.

a. True

b. False


a. True


130.

GANTT refers to the Generalized Activity Netjob-related Tracking Technique which was arisen to much better understand also just how variability in the duration of individual tasks results the meant job duration.

a. True

b. False


b. False


131.

During which of the complying with Project Schedule Management processes does the team estimate the variety of job-related durations that will certainly be required to finish a schedule activity, generally expressed as workdays or workweeks?

a. Develop schedule

b. Sequence activities

c. Estimate activity durations

d. Define activities


c. Estimate task durations


132.

aced through substantial schedule obstacles, the task manager has an moral responsibility to execute every one of the following EXCEPT:

a. persuade all stakeholders that the schedule makes sense

b. determine a schedule that is feasible to achieve

c. supply the job according to the agreed-upon schedule

d. willingly accept finish days dictated by customers or sponsors


d. willingly accept finish days dictated by customers or sponsors


133.

Milestones are important points in a project schedule that deserve to serve as check points for job managers and also sponsors. Which of the adhering to might be a factor to identify a milestone throughout project schedule planning?

a. weekly team standing meetings

b. completion of a significant deliverable

c. completion of the WBS

d. signing of the project charter


b. completion of a major deliverable


134.

Which of the complying with responses identifies a common kind of logical dependency supplied to sequence project activities?

a. last-in; first-out

b. finish-to-start

c. last-in; last-out

d. first-in; first-out


b. finish-to-start


135.

This term is identified as the total number of work-related durations (not including holidays or other non-work-related periods) compelled to finish a schedule task, normally expressed as workdays or workweeks:

a. elapsed time

b. effort

c. duration

d. resource days


c. duration


136.

Agile project schedules are limited to the amount of work the assigned resources have the right to handle.

a. True

b. False


a. True


137.

Estimate Activity Resources concentrates exclusively upon the identification of the number of humale resources forced to percreate each reserved activity.

a. True

b. False


b. False


138.

When building a responsibility matrix or "RACI" chart, it is necessary to ensure that just one perboy has main accountability for any activity.

a. True

b. False


a. True


139.

When determining resource availcapability, project supervisors need only take into consideration full time, interior resources.

a. True

b. False


b. False


140.

When recruiting sources to assistance a project, it is beneficial to bring core team members and also vital subject matter experts on board as beforehand as possible, to aid plan the project and construct the project culture.

a. True

b. False


a. True


141.

When resource overtons are excessive, job managers might must consider the acquisition of added sources, reductions in scope or extensions to the task schedule.

a. True

b. False


a. True


142.

Critical chain project administration is an alternative scheduling method that modifies the job schedule by taking resource constraints right into account.

a. True

b. False


a. True


143.

Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) attempts to store the most extremely demanded resource busy on crucial chain activities, but not overloaded.

a. True

b. False


a. True


144.

Crashing is a job schedule compression strategy that expedites a job by executing activities at the same time that ordinarily would certainly be done one after the various other.

a. True

b. False


b. False


145.

An example of rapid tracking a project schedule would be to overlap the style and also production phases for a design-to-manufacturing project, where the standard strategy would be to move on to construction just after completing the style phase.

a. True

b. False


a. True


146.

Which of these is NOT an issue to be considered once picking team members?

a. co-situated teams

b. virtual teams

c. cross practical teams

d. stages of team development


d. steras of team development


147.

A widespread tool task groups use is a duty assignment matrix (RAM). Typically, this chart will certainly depict:

a. the early on begin and also at an early stage finish, and late start and also late end up, of each schedule activity.

b. the ordered business reporting structure.

c. the duration of each activity.

d. all the occupational packperiods and also the resources assigned for miscellaneous obligations about each work package.


d. all the work packages and also the sources assigned for miscellaneous duties about each work-related package.


148.

The components (principles) of Critical Chain Project Management include which of the following?

a. Add a comfortable buffer to eexceptionally project activity

b. Adright here strictly to completion deadlines - fairly than finishing early on or late.

c. Avoid multi-tasking.

d. Estimate activity durations generously


c. Avoid multi-tasking.


149.

Project supervisors must often challenge the obstacle of compushing the task schedule. All of the complying with actions deserve to be taken to minimize the duration of the instrumental path EXCEPT:

a. Overlap sequential tasks utilizing finish-to-finish, start-to-begin, or start-to-complete relationships.

b. Partially overlap sequential tasks by utilizing time leads.

c. Use the float in crucial course activities

d. Reduce the job scope and also /or top quality.


c. Use the float in instrumental path activities


150.

Plan Cost Management is the process to recognize exactly how to arrangement, estimate, and also control project costs.

a. True

b. False


a. True


151.

Cost estimating is linked extremely very closely with scope, schedule and also reresource planning.

a. True

b. False


a. True


152.

Fixed costs reprimary the very same regardless of the dimension or volume of work, while variable prices differ straight with volume of use.

a. True

b. False


a. True


153.

The project scope does not come into play once considering fixed and variable cost selections.

a. True

b. False


b. False


154.

Regardless of what approach is provided to estimate job expenses, supporting detail must be offered.

a. True

b. False


a. True


155.

A contingency reserve is money assigned to the job and allocated for figured out dangers for which contingent responses are developed.

a. True

b. False


a. True


156.

Analogous estimating is the a lot of detailed, time consuming and also specific way to estimate.

a. True

b. False


b. False


157.

Vendor bid evaluation is supplied to identify whether the price being asked by the vendors shows up to be reasonable.

a. True

b. False


a. True


158.

Value design is aimed at enhancing the value or efficiency of a occupational aspect while minimizing the expense.

a. True

b. False


a. True


159.

A task manager demands to ensure that the cumulative amount of cash coming into the job either from inner budgeting or from customer payments meets or exceeds the needs for paying cash out.

a. True

b. False


a. True


160.

Projects often encompass instraight expenses that are necessary to save the organization running, but are not connected via one particular task. Which of the following items are the majority of commonly taken into consideration to be instraight costs?

a. executive salaries, utilities and insurance

b. prices connected through product and purchased parts

c. the expense of labor offered by project team members, consultants and also subcontractors

d. travel price for the job team


a. executive salaries, utilities and insurance


161.

Costs that repeat as job occupational continues such as the expense of composing code or laying bricks are as necessary classified as:

a. fixed expenses.

b. indirect costs.

c. nonrecurring costs.

d. recurring costs


d. recurring costs


162.

Which of the following terms finest explains added money in the job budacquire to be provided if vital - normally if a danger event occurs?

a. padding

b. discretionary fund

c. reserve

d. insurance


c. reserve


163.

Which estimating technique provides a statistical connection between historical data and various other variables (e.g., square footage in building and construction, lines of code in software application development) to calculate an estimate for scope, expense and duration?

a. analogous estimating

b. bottom-up estimating

c. Monte Carlo estimating

d. parametric estimating


d. parametric estimating


164.

All of the following determinants must be in area in order to build an analogous estimate properly EXCEPT:

a. An organization should recognize details behind the moment worth of money.

b. An organization have to know exactly how and also to what degree the proposed project differs from the previous project.

c. An company must recognize exactly how much previous jobs actually price.

d. An organization need to have actually suffer in perdeveloping comparable tasks.


a. An organization must know details behind the moment worth of money.


165.

The documentation of a project price estimate mainly requires substantial supporting information to encompass every one of these EXCEPT:

a. a summary of scope.

b. presumptions and also constraints.

c. the estimating approaches and also a range of feasible outcomes.

d. administration reserve needs


d. monitoring reserve needs


166.

Tbelow are many type of reasons of variation in project costs. Which of the following accurately defines the nature of this variation?

a. Variation occurs in all occupational processes and also the novelty linked through the majority of jobs creates many type of opportunities for variation.

b. Typical reason variation is when somepoint out of the plain occurs

c. Variation is mostly better on jobs that use renowned innovation and also an knowledgeable project team.

d. Special reason variation comes from many type of little reasons that are inherent in a job-related procedure.


a. Variation occurs in all occupational processes and also the novelty linked via the majority of projects creates many type of avenues for variation.


167.

All of the adhering to items define an aspect of life cycle costing EXCEPT:

a. Life cycle price consists of the expense of both developing the job and of utilizing the outcome of the project in the time of its advantageous life.

b. Many type of project selection decisions are made based upon life cycle expense.

c. Project supervisors might must take into consideration disposal prices of the product after its useful life is finish to calculate total life cycle price.

d. Life cycle expense just has the task cost from initiating with closing


d. Life cycle price only has the job price from initiating via closing


168.

The _________is the apshowed budobtain, usually in a time distribution format, that is supplied to estimate, monitor, and control the as a whole expense performance of the job.

a. manage account

b. management baseline.

c. price baseline.

d. price benchmark


c. price baseline.


169.

The objective of threat administration is to eliminate all project danger.

a. True

b. False


b. False


170.

When the affect of an occasion is negative, it is thought about a risk; as soon as the affect is positive, the occasion is taken into consideration an chance.

a. True

b. False


b. False


171.

The expense per risk for threats discovered beforehand in the project is frequently even more than the expense per risk for dangers uncovered late bereason tright here is more chance for the threat to affect numerous dimensions of the job.

a. True

b. False


b. False


172.

When complete, the threat register presents the outcomes of both qualitative and quantitative hazard evaluation and threat response planning.

a. True

b. False


a. True


173.

In Agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely risk administration occurs in the time of the planning of each succeeding iteration, in day-to-day stand-up meetings, and also in retrospectives at the finish of each iteration.

a. True

b. False


a. True


174.

The primary questions project teams use in qualitative hazard analysis are "how most likely is this threat to happen?", and "if it does occur, just how huge will the impact be?"

a. True

b. False


a. True


175.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the result of determined risks on all at once project goals.

a. True

b. False


a. True


176.

In some instances, job groups will certainly elect to alleviate a risk to a level that a sponsor and various other stakeholders deem acceptable, quite than get rid of it completely.

a. True

b. False


a. True


177.

Risk response methods such as accept risk and research study hazard apply to both dangers and also opportunities.

a. True

b. False


a. True


178.

Risk response strategy decisions have to reflect a thounstable knowledge of the priorities that crucial stakeholders have for expense, schedule, scope, and top quality.

a. True

b. False


a. True


179.

A ________ presents a hierarchical company of threats based on categories such as operational, strategic, finance, outside, and job administration.

a. Risk Register

b. Risk Management Plan

c. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

d. Decision Tree


c. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)


180.

All of the adhering to criteria have the right to be provided to categorize task threats EXCEPT:

a. as soon as it occurs in the project life cycle

b. whether the threat is inner or outside to the perdeveloping organization

c. whether the danger is a well-known known

d. the task objective that may be influenced by the threat (cost, schedule, scope and also / or quality)


c. whether the threat is a known known


181.

Which of the complying with explains the activities accordingly percreated by the project team throughout Perdevelop Qualitative Risk Analysis?

a. Team members specify how to conduct hazard monitoring activities for the job.

b. Team members recognize potential threat events.

c. Team members assess the probcapacity of incident and also severity of influence for determined dangers.

d. Team members build contingency plans for all threats to protect against adverse results to project objectives


c. Team members assess the probability of event and also severity of impact for figured out risks.


182.

All of the complying with define the proper application of Perdevelop Quantitative Risk Analysis in job management EXCEPT:

a. Large, complicated and also expensive jobs stand also to advantage from the additional rigor of quantitative danger evaluation techniques.

b. Quantitative approaches are offered when it is critical to predict the probcapacity of completing a task on time or within budobtain via confidence.

c. Decision Tree Analysis and also Simulation approaches such as Monte Carlo Analysis are examples of useful quantitative hazard analysis methods.

d. Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many type of project dangers as feasible. Hide Feedback


d. Brainstorming approaches are used by the team and other stakeholders to determine as many task risks as possible. Hide Feedback


183.

Which of the following defines just how the team provides a cause-and-result diagram to assistance job hazard analysis?

a. The task team begins by identifying staminas, weaknesses, opportunities and also dangers.

b. The team organizes assumptions and constraints in a fishbone pattern.

c. The team lists the risk as the "effect" in a box at the head of a fish, then names the huge bones.

d. Team members are motivated to save asking "when?" to break down dangers into even more comprehensive causes.


c. The team lists the risk as the "effect" in a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones


184.

Which of the following quantitative hazard evaluation approaches is offered to determine which dangers have the many effective impact on the task, through results displayed in the develop of a tornaexecute diagram?

a. Sensitivity Analysis

b. Simulation Techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis

c. Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

d. Faitempt Mode and also Effects Analysis (FMEA)


a. Sensitivity Analysis


185.

All of the complying with define an appropriate application of Plan Risk Responses in task management EXCEPT:

a. The expectations of the sponsor and also crucial stakeholders have to affect the danger responses that are arisen.

b. Responses have to be produced for eexceptionally identified job hazard, regardless of the risk score.

c. Risk response planning should deal with both avenues and also hazards.

d. Often multiple techniques are figured out for a single danger.


b. Responses should be developed for eextremely determined project danger, regardless of the threat score.


186.

All of the following are among the classical threat response tactics EXCEPT:

a. boost an opportunity

b. protect against a threat

c. transport a threat

d. share a threat


d. share a threat


187.

Which of the adhering to activities illustprices a risk response strategy designed to study a danger or an opportunity?

a. create triggers and also upday them frequently

b. create time or expense contingencies

c. recognize a hazard owner to each high priority risk

d. construct a prototype to learn more around a candidate solution


d. construct a protoform to learn more around a candiday solution


188.

Monitoring and controlling project job-related refers to the procedures of tracking, reviewing and reporting progression to meet the performance missions characterized in the task plan.

a. True

b. False


a. True


189.

Self-directed groups on agile projects are mainly empowered to decide what work-related to carry out and as soon as to perform it, continuous with the prioritizing of deliverables by the product owner.

a. True

b. False


a. True


190.

A top quality audit is a project monitoring and also quality tool that is a structured procedure to encertain project tasks comply via organizational plans.

a. True

b. False


a. True


191.

On agile tasks, bereason interaction is regular and quick, a directional indicator mirroring that points are acquiring better or worse in some manner is even more valuable than an extra in-depth and also polimelted report.

a. True

b. False


a. True


192.

Control quality is the forward-looking procedure of using and also enhancing the high quality arrangement and plan to perdevelop tasks that will certainly most likely bring about producing task outputs to customers" satisfaction.

a. True

b. False


b. False


193.

The purpose of a examine sheet is to conveniently understand the major reasons of a details difficulty utilizing the 80/20 ascendancy.

a. True

b. False


b. False


194.

In a control chart, a point that occurs over the upper manage limit generally suggests that some type of unique cause is producing the variation and requires a certain treatment.

a. True

b. False


a. True


195.

When reporting performance to sponsors and also monitoring, it is regularly advantageous to organize the indevelopment in terms of 3 time horizons: past, present and also future.

a. True

b. False


a. True


196.

Earned Value (EV) is the approved worth of the job-related to be completed in a provided time.

a. True

b. False


b. False


197.

The Cost Variance (CV) is a cost performance meacertain expressed as the ratio of earned value (EV) to actual price (AC).

a. True

b. False


b. False


198.

This Agile project reporting tool is useful to Scrum Masters as it projects how close to plan the team is within a provided time box, by offering a graphical depiction of work initiative staying in an iteration versus the days left in an iteration.

a. Progress report

b. Burndown chart

c. Control chart

d. Run chart


b. Burndown chart


199.

This is the procedure of reviewing all change proposals, estimating their influence on job purposes wherever correct, approving or decreasing changes, and also managing changes to deliverables, schedules, budgets and the job administration plan:

a. Perform variance evaluation and manage.

b. Percreate project security.

c. Perdevelop incorporated readjust regulate.

d. Perform configuration management


c. Percreate integrated change manage.


200.

Some establishments rely upon a formal group authorized and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, granting, delaying, or rejecting any transforms to any aspect of the task arrangement by following a formal interaction strategy of documenting the decision process. This team is generally known as a:

a. job evaluation committee.

b. steering committee

c. readjust manage board.

d. stakeholder testimonial board.


c. adjust regulate board.


201.

With respect to performance reporting, which of these are the actual and raw observations and also dimensions gathered during execution of task activities?

a. Work performance data

b. Work performance analysis

c. Work performance reports

d. Work performance information


a. Work performance data


202.

One helpful method of procedure improvement involves consideration of just how one more company perdevelops a procedure, identifying and also analyzing finest techniques for innovation principles. This method is well-known as:

a. root reason analysis

b. comparative improvement

c. voice of the customer

d. benchmarking


d. benchmarking


203.

Throughout schedule and price regulate, when comparing performance to the schedule and also cost baselines, if schedule or budobtain has changed these transforms must be:

a. reperceived with the customer or sponsor to achieve approval for additional funding

b. formally recommfinished and also managed with the included adjust control system

c. included to the original baselines, and baseline transforms made to reflect the brand-new status

d. applied immediately and also reported as variances from baseline in the next standing report


b. formally recommended and also managed through the incorporated adjust manage system


204.

All of the complying with accurately describe earned value management EXCEPT:

a. It permits a job team to understand development in regards to both expense and schedule.

b. It is good for performance reporting but not for forecasting

c. It is used as a decision-making tool.

d. It is offered to make predictions concerning the project schedule and also price control until the project"s conclusion.


b. It is great for performance reporting however not for forecasting


205.

The Spending Plan at Completion (BAC) is the amount of all budgets establimelted for the work to be performed on a project. Thus it is tantamount to:

a. the complete worth of the work-related completed to date

b. the full planned worth of the project

c. the total actual expense of the project.

d. the complete earned value of the task.

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b. the total planned value of the project


206.

Which of the following measures is ideal suited for determining whether the job is on, ahead or behind schedule?