I"ve heard both "bosotros" and "Vosotros"... Which is correct? Or is this a regional thing?

Thanks much,

The V is pronounced precisely like the B. However before, some bilingual indigenous speakers that stop an additional language via the V sound like in English, tend to periodically execute the same in Spanish, if just slightly. Spanish speakers that likewise soptimal English regularly pressure the V sound as soon as asked by English speakers, but the V sound is not Spanish. Centuries prior to Spanish conquistadors attacked the Americas, Spanish speakers were renown in Europe because they were inqualified of telling acomponent the B form the V, and also retained mixing them even in composing, and also that"s bereason the V sound disappeared long time earlier from the language.

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One trouble that English speakers have actually is that the letter B has two sounds in Spanish (and also only one in English), and also this is not mentioned in many kind of books for some stvariety reason (it is discussed in all major ones, of course). The letter V likewise has actually the exact same two sounds as the letter B, however namong those sounds is the English V.

updated AGO 3, 2011
edited by lazarus1907
posted by lazarus1907
i've had many spanish teachers (from southern america) who would not agree through this and also are adimate that they are different sounds. - toothpastechica, AGO 3, 2011
It is approximately them whether they agree or not, but the historical facts remain facts, regardmuch less of their opinion. - lazarus1907, AGO 3, 2011
Besides, the linguistic Academies from all Latin American nations (and also USA) are developed by well known authors and professional in linguistics, and they all say the same: tright here is no B/V difference, other than when there is interference via a second language. - lazarus1907, AGO 3, 2011
Those Spanish teachers you mention are most likely affected by a 2nd language also. Ask them whether they have stupassed away general and also historical linguistics or they are simply generalizing from their narrowhead daily suffer as aboriginal speakers. - lazarus1907, AGO 3, 2011
Are those Spanish teachers conscious that the B alone has 2 distinct sounds? - lazarus1907, AGO 3, 2011
everything that i have ever heard from both acedemic teachers and also human being who dont understand any kind of english at all states that a v is prounoced like a soft b (or inbetween a v and also b) Historic grammars has actually it place, but tbelow are distinctions in many areas. - toothpastechica, AGO 3, 2011

The rules that I learned around "b" and also "v" (they make the exact same sound) are quite straightforward.

If the letter is at the begin of a word or after an "l," "m," "n," or "s," then it renders the "b" (/b/) sound like in English. But there"s no puff of air after it in Spanish favor tbelow is in English.

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If it"s anywhere else, the sound is one that doesn"t exist in Spanish, /?/. This sound is produced in a manner comparable to the English "v" (/v/), but rather of emotional the bottom lip to the top teeth, both lips are in front of the teeth (favor as soon as making the "b" sound) and air is blvery own via them in a voiced manner. You deserve to hear it on this Wikipedia page.

Now, Wikipedia also claims (look at the "Phonetic notes" section) that the "v" (/v/) sound have the right to occur wright here tright here is an "f" (/f/) before voiced consonants, however that there"s some "free variation" through this.